注意事项：
- 本试卷共四大题，满分120分,考试时间120分钟。
- 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
- 所有答案必须写在答题卡指定区域内,在试卷上作答无效。
听力理解（共三节，满分30分）第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段短对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,每段对话读两遍。
- What will the weather be like tomorrow? A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Cloudy.
- Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a library. B. In a restaurant. C. In a bookstore.
- How does the man usually go to work? A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On foot.
- What time is it now? A. 7:15. B. 7:30. C. 7:45.
- What does the woman want to buy? A. A skirt. B. A shirt. C. A sweater.
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）听下面3段长对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is Peter doing? A. Doing homework. B. Watching TV. C. Playing computer games. 7. What does his mother ask him to do? A. Clean his room. B. Turn down the TV. C. Go to bed early.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Where are the two speakers going? A. To a museum. B. To a park. C. To a cinema. 9. How will they get there? A. By subway. B. By taxi. C. By bus. 10. When will they meet? A. At 8:30. B. At 9:00. C. At 9:30.
听第8段材料，回答第11至15题。 11. What is the speaker mainly talking about? A. School rules. B. A sports meeting. C. Weekend plans. 12. How long will the trip last? A. One day. B. Two days. C. Three days. 13. What should students take? A. Food and water. B. Umbrellas and hats. C. Notebooks and pens. 14. Where should students gather? A. At the school gate. B. In the classroom. C. On the playground. 15. What is the purpose of the trip? A. To have a picnic. B. To do a survey. C. To visit a factory.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面一篇短文，根据短文内容，完成句子，每空不超过三个单词，短文读两遍。 16. The English club meeting is on____evening. 17. The topic is about how to improve____. 18. The guest speaker is from____. 19. Students can ask questions during the____part. 20. Those who want to attend should sign up before____.
语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）第一节：单项选择（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21. — Is this____storybook you told me about? — Yes, it’s really____interesting one. A. the; an B. a; the C. the; a D. a; an 22. My sister is____than me. She always makes friends easily. A. outgoing B. more outgoing C. most outgoing D. the most outgoing 23. — Must I finish the report today? — No, you____. You can hand it in tomorrow. A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. shouldn’t D. can’t 24. The 2024 Olympic Games____in Paris. Many athletes will take part in it. A. held B. will hold C. were held D. will be held 25. —____have you had this mobile phone? — For about two years. A. How long B. How often C. How soon D. How far 26. If it____tomorrow, we will go for a picnic in the park. A. doesn’t rain B. didn’t rain C. won’t rain D. hasn’t rained 27. The movie____we saw last night was very touching. A. who B. which C. whom D. whose 28. — I’m feeling a bit nervous about the speech. —____. I believe you can do it well. A. Good luck B. Have fun C. Take it easy D. You’re welcome 29. My parents often encourage me____new things. A. try B. trying C. to try D. tried 30. — Would you like some coffee or tea? —____is OK. I don’t mind. A. Both B. Either C. Neither D. All 31. The teacher asked the students____loudly in the library. A. not talk B. not talking C. don’t talk D. not to talk 32. — I’m sorry I broke your cup. —____. Be careful next time. A. It doesn’t matter B. You’re welcome C. That’s right D. Not at all 33. We____to start at 8:00, but it’s already 8:30 and Mike hasn’t come yet. A. supposed B. are supposed C. were supposed D. will be supposed 34. — Do you know____? — Yes. He is a famous scientist. A. who is he B. who he is C. what is he D. what he is 35. — Look! The boys____football on the playground. — Yes. They____there every afternoon. A. play; are playing B. are playing; play C. play; play D. are playing; are playing
第二节：完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 When I was in middle school, I had a terrible experience. One day, I was asked to give a speech in front of the whole class. I was so36that I couldn’t sleep well the night before. The next morning, I felt even worse. My hands were cold and my heart was beating fast. When it was my turn, I walked to the front slowly. I looked at the37and saw many eyes looking at me. Suddenly, my mind went38. I forgot everything I had prepared. I stood there silently for almost a minute, feeling my face turn red. I thought I had39. Just then, my teacher, Mr. Li, smiled at me and said40, “Take a deep breath. You can start with your name.” His calm voice made me feel a little41. I did as he said and began to speak. At first, my voice was42, but gradually, I found my confidence. I remembered my43and finished the speech. After the speech, Mr. Li came to me and said, “You did a good job. Everyone feels nervous sometimes. The44is to face it bravely.” His words45me deeply. From then on, I practiced speaking in public whenever I had the chance. Now, I’m no longer that shy boy. I’m46of myself. This experience taught me that47is not about never feeling afraid. It’s about not letting fear48you. A little encouragement can make a big49. I’m very thankful to Mr. Li for his help. I hope one day I can50someone else just as he helped me. 36. A. excited B. nervous C. happy D. angry 37. A. board B. door C. audience D. window 38. A. blank B. full C. busy D. clear 39. A. succeeded B. finished C. failed D. won 40. A. quickly B. sadly C. angrily D. gently 41. A. worse B. better C. stranger D. sadder 42. A. loud B. sweet C. low D. clear 43. A. lines B. homework C. promise D. dream 44. A. problem B. key C. result D. reason 45. A. hurt B. touched C. surprised D. changed 46. A. afraid B. tired C. proud D. ashamed 47. A. success B. courage C. kindness D. honesty 48. A. help B. stop C. save D. push 49. A. decision B. difference C. mistake D. plan 50. A. respect B. remember C. encourage D. follow
阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）第一节：阅读选择（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
AWelcome to Green Hill Park Opening hours: 6:00 a.m. – 10:00 p.m. (April to October) 7:00 a.m. – 8:00 p.m. (November to March) Main attractions: • Flower Garden (Best time to visit: May – July) • Lake (Boating available from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.) • Children’s Playground • Sports Center (Tennis & Basketball courts) Rules: • Keep the park clean. • No swimming in the lake. • Pets must be on a leash (牵绳). • No picking flowers. For more information, visit www.greenhillpark.com or call 563-2121.
- When can you visit the park in January? A. At 6:30 a.m. B. At 9:00 p.m. C. At 10:30 a.m. D. At 7:30 p.m.
- What can you do in the park? A. Go boating at 6:00 p.m. in August. B. Pick some flowers in the garden. C. Play tennis in the Sports Center. D. Swim in the lake on a hot day.
- Where is the text most probably from? A. A storybook. B. A travel guide. C. A science report. D. A history magazine.
BA new study shows that teenagers who eat breakfast regularly get better grades at school. Researchers from a university asked 500 students aged 13-15 about their eating habits and then looked at their school reports. They found that students who ate breakfast every day scored higher in math, science and languages than those who didn’t. “Breakfast provides the energy and nutrients (营养) that the brain needs after a long night’s sleep,” says Dr. Smith, the leader of the study. “Without breakfast, teenagers may feel tired and find it hard to pay attention in class.” The study also found that what teenagers eat for breakfast is important. Those who ate a balanced breakfast with milk, bread, fruit or eggs did better than those who ate sweets or snacks. Dr. Smith suggests that parents should help their children develop the habit of eating a healthy breakfast. Schools can also play a role by offering healthy breakfast options or starting classes a little later to give students time to eat. 54. How many students took part in the study? A. 500. B. 13. C. 15. D. 50. 55. According to Dr. Smith, why is breakfast important for teenagers? A. Because it helps them grow taller. B. Because it gives the brain needed energy. C. Because it makes them enjoy school more. D. Because it saves time for morning classes. 56. Which breakfast is the best according to the study? A. Coffee and cake. B. Milk and an apple. C. Juice and cookies. D. Tea and candy. 57. What is the main purpose of the text? A. To introduce a new study on sleep. B. To encourage schools to start later. C. To show the importance of eating breakfast. D. To teach parents how to cook healthy food.
CIn a small village, there lived an old man named Mr. Chen. He was known for his beautiful garden full of colorful flowers. Every day, children would pass by his garden on their way to school and admire the flowers. One spring, Mr. Chen became ill and could not take care of his garden. The flowers began to die. The children felt sad seeing the garden lose its beauty. One girl, Lily, had an idea. She told her classmates, “Mr. Chen’s garden brings joy to all of us. Now he needs our help.” The children decided to work together to save the garden. After school, they went to Mr. Chen’s garden. They watered the plants, pulled out the weeds (杂草) and cleared the paths. They even brought some new flower seeds and planted them. Mr. Chen watched from his window with a smile. After a few weeks, the garden was even more beautiful than before. When Mr. Chen got better, he thanked the children. “You have not only saved my garden but also taught me about kindness,” he said. From that day on, Mr. Chen invited the children to visit the garden anytime and taught them how to grow flowers. The garden became a place of friendship and joy for the whole village. 58. Why did the flowers in Mr. Chen’s garden begin to die? A. Because the weather was bad. B. Because Mr. Chen was too old to work. C. Because Mr. Chen was ill and couldn’t care for them. D. Because the children picked them. 59. What did the children NOT do to help? A. Water the plants. B. Pull out the weeds. C. Bring new flower seeds. D. Sell the flowers. 60. What did Mr. Chen do after he got better? A. He punished the children. B. He sold the garden. C. He thanked and taught the children. D. He planted more trees. 61. What is the main message of the story? A. Gardening is hard work. B. Flowers are important to life. C. Kindness can make a difference. D. Old people need help.
第二节：阅读匹配（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）阅读下面材料，请将左栏的人物描述与右栏对应的建议进行匹配。 62. Tom is often late for school because he goes to bed too late and can’t get up on time. 63. Mary loves reading but often reads in poor light. Now she has problems with her eyesight. 64. Jack eats too much fast food and seldom exercises. He is becoming overweight. 65. Lucy feels stressed before exams. She worries too much and can’t sleep well. 66. Peter spends too much time playing video games and has little time for homework.
A. You should develop a healthy eating habit. Eat more vegetables and fruit. Also, do sports like running or swimming regularly. B. Plan your time properly. Set a time limit for games and make sure you finish your homework first. Ask your parents for help if needed. C. Go to bed earlier. You can set an alarm clock to wake you up in the morning. A good sleep is important for your study. D. Find a quiet place to review your lessons. Listen to some light music or take a walk to relax. Believe in yourself. E. Always read in a well-lit place. Take a break every hour and look at something far away to rest your eyes. Have your eyes checked regularly.
书面表达（共两节，满分20分）第一节：短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）根据上下文和所给首字母提示，在空格处填入一个适当的单词，使短文意思完整。 In today’s world, the Internet plays an important role in our daily lives. It helps us get information, stay in touch with friends, and even s67online. However, we should also be aware of its d68. Spending too much time online is harmful to our health. It may cause eye problems or make us forget to do outdoor a69. Some people, especially teenagers, may meet bad people or see unhealthy information on the Internet. So, what should we do? First, we should l70the time we spend online. It’s a good idea to make a plan and f71it. Second, never tell strangers your personal information, such as your real name, address or phone n72. Third, if you see something that makes you feel u73, tell your parents or teachers immediately. Remember, the Internet is a useful t74, but we must use it w75and safely. Let’s be smart Internet users!
第二节：作文（满分10分）76. 假设你是李华，你的英国笔友Mike来信说他对中国的传统节日很感兴趣，并想了解你是如何度过一个中国传统节日的，请你用英文给他回信，介绍一个你最喜欢的中国传统节日（如春节、中秋节等），并描述你是如何度过这个节日的。 注意：
- 词数80左右；
- 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯；
- 信中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称。
带答案版）：2025年初中毕业生学业水平考试（中考）英语试卷 参考答案及评分标准**
听力理解（听力材料及录音原文略，以下为答案） 1-5: BABCA 6-10: CABAB 11-15: CAACB 16. Friday 17. listening skills / listening 18. England / the UK 19. discussion 20. Thursday
语言知识运用第一节：单项选择21-25: ABBDA 26-30: ABCCB 31-35: DACBB第二节：完形填空36-40: BCACD 41-45: BCABB 46-50: CBBBC
阅读理解第一节：阅读选择51-55: DCBAB 56-60: BCCDC 61-65: CA